The main criticism of my piece in ref (2) seems to be that my calculations rely on testing a point null hypothesis, i.e. the hypothesis that the true effect size is zero. He objects to my contention that the true effect size can be zero, "just give the same pill to both groups", on the grounds that two pills can't be exactly identical. He then says "I understand that this criticism may come across as frivolous semantic pedantry of no practical consequence: of course that the author meant to say 'pills with the same contents' as everybody would have understood". Yes, that is precisely how it comes across to me. I shall try to explain in more detail why I think that this criticism has little substance.